Originally posted by lamarjones
this was my earlier question...
"The question I need answered: What is the difference is a 34" inch scale with an extended B string, and a 35" scale with a capo on the first fret. "
I think you havea point, although I am not totally convinced on your comment backs up what you say about 'increasing scale length means you need to inscrease tension in order to achieve the same pitch". One thing to note, if the 'tightness' of the string is not necessarily due to tension, that I amy be arguing the wrong cause, but for now that is what I beleive. The wavelength produced is determined by the two resonating ends, and also based on the tension on the string.
If you change the definition of tightness to something other than tension, then fine, believe what you want. Yes, the fundamental wavelength is based on the tension, string mass and distance between the to fixed ends of the string, which in this case is the nut and bridge saddle. The wavelength of a fundamental B (30.9Hz) on a 35" scale bass, is 70", just FYI.
Example, an e string on a 34" in scale bass has a given amount of tension, and the same tension occurs all over even though you are hitting different frets to achieve different notes.
Exactly, though the act of fretting changes the tension, why the 1st fret often sounds sharp compared to the rest.
tuning down makes you achieve a different note on the same scale length, and all the frets respond with different notes as well. Now, the same tension after tuning down will be the same tension on a shorter scale bass in order to achieve the initial E you were wanting.
So the point is, tension + scale length + string gauge = note . But that does not say that tension is a result of the placement of the ends of the vibration. Tension is the same, no matter where you fret on the bass.
Perhaps I should have been more clear, the note is a function of the length of the vibrating string (only scale length for an open note, but I used this as I was referring only to the open B), the tension of the string, and the linear mass density of the string.
I am not a hundred percent convinced this is right either, but logically it sounds as if the nut simply acts a fret, providing an end of vibration. Is that totally off?
Yes, the nut is acting exactly like a fret, which is why the nut to tuner distance makes no difference to the tension of the string.
BTW, I am still siding with physics, cause it is what enabled the instrument in the first place.
Actually physics says exactly this: "increasing scale length means you need to inscrease tension in order to achieve the same pitch". So you are arguing against physics. Trust me, I did this stuff in my 2nd year university and I am referencing my notes as we go so I don't make any incorrect comments. If you don't believe me, get a university level waves and vibrations text, they generally treat vibrating strings quite well.