This has been really really bugging me. I'm going to fix it on my own bass I got recently from Fender that has this configuration but I can't think of a time when I'm ever up 50-50 on both pickups on my J-Bass, why would Fender lock me into just this?
I see YouTubers are almost always on my side on this, but I do see a few people who do like it. All of this is preference, so I'm just curious, am I being a grumpy old man about this (very crotchity in my 40s)? Where does everyone fall on this switch-thing in recent years? Why does Fender seemingly keep either fader or V/V config on high-end Americans? Is this a cost thing, like is routing this switch cheaper than an additional CTS pot? Seems like it would be a tradeoff on the manufacturing side.
Last MIM I got was in 2003, a 2 year old used J-Bass, zero mods. This new MIM? I want to replace everything and things like this just annoy me.
Is there some, "you don't understand how preamp circuits work" reason for this?
Thanks, and I await to find out just how stupid I am