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Fender Rumble Club

#15,602
Bass said:
I find it interesting that Rumble 100 + 40 is the same power as the Rumble 200 without the extension cab. The Rumble 200 requires an extension cab for the full 200 w, otherwise it runs at 140 w.
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Yep. Same thing with the 500, which puts out 350 watts on its own, and requires an extension cab for the full 500 watts. I once chained a Rumble 100 and a Rumble 40, and the result was quite loud, probably equal to the 200 combo, as the power is the same, and the 10" and 12" drivers should yield the same speaker area as the 200 or perhaps even a little more.
 
#15,604
Gravedigger Dav said:
One thing isn't clear to me. If you chain the two 500s together as described, does the master volume on the master amp control the master volume on the slave or do you have to set the master volume for the slave amp separately?
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The master volume on the master amp controls both. The master volume on the slave amp is bypassed entirely if you use the effect loop return. The effect loop return goes straight to the power amp. You are using the pre-amp of the master amp to feed both power amps this way. They perform in a linear fashion if they have the same power amp/driver characteristics as two identical combos would.
 
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#15,605
Gravedigger Dav said:
One thing isn't clear to me. If you chain the two 500s together as described, does the master volume on the master amp control the master volume on the slave or do you have to set the master volume for the slave amp separately?
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I would think no knobs on the 2nd amp.would have an effect because you are tapping in at the return. Everyone says "the main amp.controlled.the volume.of the slave". The only knob that might have an effect is the master, if the return is pre master. Perhaps someone will chime in for sure.

Many amps when you use the effects return it is the same as a.power amp in (if it is a serial loop), and the knobs are all lame ducks at that point. So the question is if the loop is post or pre master. I will look at block diagram.
 
#15,606
wilder said:
The master volume on the master amp controls both. The master volume on the slave amp is bypassed entirely if you use the effect loop return. The effect loop return goes straight to the power amp. You are using the pre-amp of the master amp to feed both power amps this way. They perform in a linear fashion if they have the same power amp/driver characteristics as two identical combos would.
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Thanks. That was my assumption. I know I ran an Ampeg B1R using a a SansAmp pre and it controlled everything.
 
#15,607
wilder said:
The master volume on the master amp controls both. The master volume on the slave amp is bypassed entirely if you use the effect loop return. The effect loop return goes straight to the power amp. You are using the pre-amp of the master amp to feed both power amps this way. They perform in a linear fashion if they have the same power amp/driver characteristics as two identical combos would.
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Yep, block diagram indicates that as well, it actually has the master before the contour and eq as well. So the master volume drives the send, and the return is a direct tap
 
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#15,609
wilder said:
It never even occurred to me to check the block diagram to validate the theory. Very wise of you. I just ordered a second combo and began empirical testing. :)
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Heck,.some peavey amps had that shiz printed on the back of the amp itself. The KB300 for instance. I never should have sold that bad boy, it made a great mini PA system,.and a passable bass amp, if you put a preamp in front of it. It was very "flat" sounding otherwise. I bought it for use with a Roland GR-1 guitar synth and secondary use as bass amp. I was playing guitar but "had a bass too"

Signal flow is a good concept to know.
 
#15,613
Linnin said:
:laugh: Gear Bashing? On TalkBass? Perish the thought! :roflmao:
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JBL = junk but loud
Crate = can't really afford the equipment
Peavey = poorly engineered audio visual equipment, Y'd ya buy it?

Might catch some hate for the last one, but since this was from one of my concert sound teachers, it was more geared towards peavey pro audio than instruments and amps, though in that area peavey was considered only above crate, and teeter tottering with carvin. SAME GUY sold me several peavey items when he worked at a music store before getting the job teaching at the college. Peavey rock master, classic 120, classic 120/120, kb300 etc...
 
#15,614
ubernator said:
No blasphemy there. I owned an early 90s fury that I sold in the late 90s, kind of regret that now, but back then a fury was the equivalent of a squier made in the USA in Mississippi. New they were cheaper than MIM fenders, and used so so bridge and electronics, at the squier or a little better level. I really liked the string tree that kept the a d g down rather than just the DG.

I recently got a milestone II, probably mid 90s Korea, and a likely mid 90s USA foundation for even cheaper. The milestone sounded good through the rumble, but I am still likely to put my spb-3 and some CTS pots in it. The foundation has the soap bar pickups. I will try it through the rumble tomorrow night. Neither of these basses have the cool fury string tree though, so you have to be careful not to cut too much off the a string.

The only blasphemy is when people say how much better they are than USA fenders. In find that not to be the case, in fact I was way happier with mim fender at least when I sold the fury to recoup some of the cost of the upgrade. Now bang for buck dollar wise yeah, the peavey is superior. But as an instrument itself, give me my fenders any day. But they cost 4-10x as much so it is all.relative. the milestone is a.backup for my p and the foundation is one for my jazz.

I still wish I had that fury though, it was 'murican. (And had maple board, both of.my recent cheap money peaveys are rosewood). I can't quite get the action low enough on the foundation because the truss rod min'd out where I still want a little more relief, or.perhaps it just needs a little.fret work.. But.for $40 including a thrashed hard case, and strung with still lively elixirs (which I moved.to my.jazz), I can put up with its shortcoming. It is quite a beater. I had a thread.going. on it the.other day. It was practically free. Now I want another fury.maybe a patriot and a super ferrite foundation. Might be willing to sell my sr500 to do that, but then again, maybe not. I now have 11 basses including my squier II that is cut up and in pieces, 10 functional, so likely I will.stop there unless another $50 wonder pops up in a 30-40 mile radius. The ibanez has a wenge/bubinga neck, which makes me.want to keep it. So I did.get.caught up.in the cheap beater peavey whirlwind recently.
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I hear you. I currently have an '87 SF Foundation, '84 SF Patriot , '83 slanted SF Fury & now the '97 P-bass Fury. Plus an'07 Squire P-bass that seems to be unique in the fact that the neck says "Precision" but the nut width is only 1-1/2" the same width as a jazz neck
 
#15,615
tgriley62 said:
I hear you. I currently have an '87 SF Foundation, '84 SF Patriot , '83 slanted SF Fury & now the '97 P-bass Fury. Plus an'07 Squire P-bass that seems to be unique in the fact that the neck says "Precision" but the nut width is only 1-1/2" the same width as a jazz neck
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How would you compare the sf fury with the patriot? Sounds like that is the same bass except for the slant. Any other differences?

I never played any SF ones, let alone a t40 or the like.

About fender neck width, it changes with models, there have been p basses with narrow necks, and p bass specials are usually jazz width. My P bass is 1.5, unless my tape.measure is off, because my jazz measures less than 1.5. Some p bass are 1.625 and others are 1.75. Mine is just a 2000 american standard, not a special or other different P. My milestone II is the same width, the foundation is about the same as the jazz. Time to use a different tape to be sure...

Personally, that is one of the main reasons I want my fury back, jazz width, p sound. And a maple board, I keep getting stuck with Rosie's because that is what happens to be what I get a too good to pass up deal on. Might end up parting with that ibanez after all. I keep going back and forth on that one in my head. In my heaaaaaaad (yeah I play system on the Ibby)
 
#15,616
ubernator said:
How would you compare the sf fury with the patriot? Sounds like that is the same bass except for the slant. Any other differences?

I never played any SF ones, let alone a t40 or the like.

About fender neck width, it changes with models, there have been p basses with narrow necks, and p bass specials are usually jazz width. My P bass is 1.5, unless my tape.measure is off, because my jazz measures less than 1.5. Some p bass are 1.625 and others are 1.75. Mine is just a 2000 american standard, not a special or other different P. My milestone II is the same width, the foundation is about the same as the jazz. Time to use a different tape to be sure...

Personally, that is one of the main reasons I want my fury back, jazz width, p sound. And a maple board, I keep getting stuck with Rosie's because that is what happens to be what I get a too good to pass up deal on. Might end up parting with that ibanez after all. I keep going back and forth on that one in my head. In my heaaaaaaad (yeah I play system on the Ibby)
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I found that both the SF Patriot & SF Fury to sound similar. What surprised me about both was how "hot" the signal was from the SF pickup. A lot hotter sounding than my SF Foundation. I am no expert on this but, probably since the Foundation has two pickups it is not has hot as the Patriot & Fury with the single pickup
 
#15,617
tgriley62 said:
I found that both the SF Patriot & SF Fury to sound similar. What surprised me about both was how "hot" the signal was from the SF pickup. A lot hotter sounding than my SF Foundation. I am no expert on this but, probably since the Foundation has two pickups it is not has hot as the Patriot & Fury with the single pickup
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That would not make sense. If the pickups are the same spec, then the foundation with just the neck pickup turned up should be about the same. Either peavey changed the specs and SF pickups are not all the same, or the electronics could be an issue, different pot values/quality/condition. Pickup height is another factor as are different string types (some are louder than others). Most likely peavey changed the number of windings on the pickups.

More pertinent question, what is your verdict on the SF fury vs the P style fury? And the P style fury vs the squier?
 
#15,618
ubernator said:
That would not make sense. If the pickups are the same spec, then the foundation with just the neck pickup turned up should be about the same. Either peavey changed the specs and SF pickups are not all the same, or the electronics could be an issue, different pot values/quality/condition. Pickup height is another factor as are different string types (some are louder than others). Most likely peavey changed the number of windings on the pickups.

More pertinent question, what is your verdict on the SF fury vs the P style fury? And the P style fury vs the squier?
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To me the P-bass Fury has better sustain than the Squire but, the Fury has the Maple neck vs the Squires Rosewood so that might come into play. As far as the SF vs the P-bass Fury I tend to like the thinner neck of the P-bass Fury.
 
#15,619
JakobT said:
Yes, they would, if you could connect them together, but as the 40 doesn't have an effects loop, you can't. When you connect two amps via the effects loop, you bypass the preamp section of the slave amp entirely, but both power amps are working. That means that all EQ'ing is done from the master and affects both amps, and you get the full power output on both. Thus, a 100 and a 40 together gives you 140 watts, two 100's would give you 200 watts and so on.
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If the 40 doesn't have an effects loop how is it paired with the 100?
 

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