I think the problem is that we see modes from a western functional harmony perspective. In western classical music from the 18th century on (baroque) or so the major and minor keys were all there is. Since then all theory has been derived from major and minor. Before that music was more modal. From the 20th century on the modes became more popular again in classical music. And in jazz these modes also became popular. But in non western music there were always modes.
Modes and functional harmony are sometimes a tough match since modal music was originality not based on chords. So most western music theory is still based on major and minor because of the functional harmony and therefore modal music and theory can mismatch sometimes.
In the modal days there was not such a thing as modes and scales. There were only modes. But you can also call them scales. Whatever you want.
Modes and functional harmony are sometimes a tough match since modal music was originality not based on chords. So most western music theory is still based on major and minor because of the functional harmony and therefore modal music and theory can mismatch sometimes.
In the modal days there was not such a thing as modes and scales. There were only modes. But you can also call them scales. Whatever you want.
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