MDBass
Supporting Member
- Nov 7, 2012
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- Endorsing Artist: Dingwall-Fender-Bergantino-Dunlop-Tech 21-Darkglass-Nordstrand
I get it. If you’re in C and come across C/E to F....the first chord is still a C chord of which the root is C so long as the C/E is meant to function as a I chord. Further down in the chart is C to F/D to C/E etc.....limited context but let’s say the F/D is functioning as a ii chord. Is the root still F?
Generally I prefer to think of and name chords based on the note I’m supposed to play. Often it gives me more insight the chord’s function. There’s nothing wrong in my mind with calling a chord “C with an E in the bass”, it makes sense until it doesn’t.
Not trying to start Theory War 2019...just stating what works well in my tiny head. I realize I’m in the minority here.
Now go open some presents!!
All good man! Yep, the root of F/D is still F, but if you don’t play D the arrangement will miss the harmonic tension that the composer/arranger intended.
Funny you mention that particular chord: the band I play with just finished pre-production for the new album, and when finalizing th bass line for one song I altered the harmony of an F chord for one of the two bars it played with a D in the bass.
The producer and artist both freaked out: suddenly the chorus had much more movement and truly felt finished.
That’s the beauty of reharmonization