Who says that just because a musician is influenced by a certain style, that style has to show in everything they do, or if it does as overtly as the untrained ear might like it to?
I don't hear much jazz in keith jarrett's performances of J.S Bach's well tempered piano or much ,messiaen in anthony jackson's performances on "The concert in central park" by simon and garfunkel.
Does that really mean that those influences are not there?
Sometimes all that comes through of an influence is a musician's touch or phrasing etc...
I don't hear much jazz in keith jarrett's performances of J.S Bach's well tempered piano or much ,messiaen in anthony jackson's performances on "The concert in central park" by simon and garfunkel.
Does that really mean that those influences are not there?
Sometimes all that comes through of an influence is a musician's touch or phrasing etc...
